Animal-Related Health Risks

Course #94925 - $90-


Study Points

  1. Reflect on the history of zoonotic diseases.
  2. Define the hosts and host characteristics associated with zoonotic diseases.
  3. Compare the types of vectors and transmission of zoonotic diseases.
  4. Discuss the classification of zoonotic diseases.
  5. Identify the common pathogens involved in the spread of infection from animals to humans.
  6. Discuss the clinical presentation, diagnosis, and treatment of Lyme disease.
  7. Outline characteristics and treatment of other tickborne zoonotic diseases, including tularemia, Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF), and ehrlichiosis.
  8. Discuss the clinical presentation, diagnosis, and treatment of West Nile virus infection.
  9. Describe the characteristics and treatment of other viral zoonotic diseases, including avian influenza.
  10. Discuss the background, clinical presentation, and prevention of bovine spongiform encephalitis (BSE) and its resulting disease in humans, variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD).
  11. Identify some of the common protozoal zoonotic diseases.
  12. Describe the characteristics and treatment of anthrax infection.
  13. Identify other common bacterial zoonotic diseases, including cholera.
  14. Recall the characteristics of common parasitic zoonotic diseases and appropriate treatment.
  15. Outline the role of an interpreter in treating non-English-proficient patients.

    1 . Which of the following diseases was known to be transmitted from animals to humans in the 1300s?
    A) Rabies
    B) Tularemia
    C) Tinea cruris
    D) Liver flukes

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    2 . In what decade did the electron microscope allow us to first see viruses?
    A) The 1920s
    B) The 1930s
    C) The 1940s
    D) The 1950s

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    3 . An animal that can support an infective agent of a zoonotic disease is called a
    A) host.
    B) zooan.
    C) vector.
    D) carrier.

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    4 . In a dead-end or aberrant host, the organism cannot
    A) reproduce.
    B) transmit disease.
    C) survive even briefly.
    D) Both A and B

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    5 . A more serious zoonotic disease transmitted by an arthropod vector is
    A) malaria.
    B) Lyme disease.
    C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF).
    D) All of the above

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    6 . The two types of transmission from animals to humans are
    A) direct and indirect.
    B) direct and reservoir.
    C) indirect and complete.
    D) incomplete and complete.

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    7 . Plague would be reported in which zoonotic disease class?
    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4

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    8 . The protozoan Entamoeba histolytica can cause which zoonotic disease?
    A) Giardiasis
    B) Amebiasis
    C) Balantidiasis
    D) Toxoplasmosis

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    9 . Nematode infection can cause
    A) giardiasis.
    B) listeriosis.
    C) trichinosis.
    D) Lyme disease.

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    10 . Which of the following is NOT a bacterial zoonotic agent?
    A) Taenia solium
    B) Bacillus anthracis
    C) Rickettsia rickettsii
    D) Bartonella henselae

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    11 . Stage 1 of Lyme disease may present with a characteristic skin lesion in 70% to 80% of cases. It is usually described as a(n)
    A) lesion looking like impetigo.
    B) linear, raised rash of an erythema.
    C) macular, papular, flesh-colored rash.
    D) expanding bull's-eye lesion of erythema migrans.

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    12 . Stage 3 of Lyme disease may occur how long after the initial infection?
    A) Within hours
    B) A few days
    C) Months to years
    D) Only after several years

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    13 . The most definitive diagnosis of Lyme disease by laboratory tests is made with the combination of positive findings in
    A) immune serum and culture.
    B) ELISA and Western blot tests.
    C) the Lyme urine antigen test (LUAT) and PCR.
    D) a rise in leukocyte count with a minimal increase in IgM.

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    14 . The International Lyme and Associated Diseases Society suggests that acute Lyme disease in adults should be treated with
    A) a carbapenem.
    B) watchful waiting.
    C) gentamicin and ciprofloxacin.
    D) either doxycycline, amoxicillin, or cefuroxime.

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    15 . The most common form of clinical tularemia is
    A) typhoidal.
    B) pneumonic.
    C) oculoglandular.
    D) ulceroglandular.

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    16 . Which type of tularemia is mainly due to inhalation or ingestion of bacilli?
    A) Bovar
    B) Typhoidal
    C) Oculoglandular
    D) Ulceroglandular

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    17 . The most common rickettsial disease in the United States is
    A) RMSF.
    B) Q fever.
    C) Psittacosis.
    D) Murine typhus.

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    18 . The symptoms of RMSF usually appear how long after a tick bite?
    A) 1 to 2 days
    B) 2 to 14 days
    C) 2 to 3 weeks
    D) 60 days

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    19 . The primary reservoir of West Nile virus is
    A) pigs.
    B) birds.
    C) horses.
    D) mosquitoes.

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    20 . Most West Nile virus infections are subclinical and unapparent. Approximately what percentage of those who contract the virus will develop West Nile fever?
    A) Less than 1%
    B) 5%
    C) 20%
    D) 50%

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    21 . Some imaging studies may be helpful after the development of West Nile meningoencephalitis. The test that has proved to be of most help is a(n)
    A) MRI.
    B) CT scan.
    C) skull x-ray.
    D) nuclear medicine brain scan.

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    22 . If untreated, the fatality rate of rabies is
    A) between 10% to 20%.
    B) between 25% to 50%.
    C) between 50% to 75%.
    D) almost 100%.

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    23 . A diagnosis of rabies must be made before symptoms appear. All of the following tests are used, EXCEPT:
    A) Antibody analysis of serum
    B) Immediate neuroimaging procedures
    C) Skin biopsy to examine nerves at the base of hair follicles
    D) Samples of brain tissue of animals to look for Negri bodies

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    24 . The recommended vaccine for rabies pre-exposure prophylaxis is
    A) cell culture vaccine.
    B) rabbit globulin vaccine.
    C) human diploid cell vaccine.
    D) purified duck embryo vaccine.

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    25 . Of the following, which hemagglutinin antigen subtype has become more implicated in recent avian virus outbreaks?
    A) H1
    B) H3
    C) H4
    D) H5

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    26 . Avian influenza in humans has NOT resulted from
    A) contact with infected poultry.
    B) eating cooked poultry products.
    C) contact with contaminated surfaces.
    D) aerosolized virus landing on the mouth, nose, or eye.

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    27 . Humans have no immunity to which avian influenza virus type, resulting in illness and a high fatality rate?
    A) Influenza A virus
    B) Influenza B virus
    C) Influenza N virus
    D) Influenza H virus

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    28 . The incubation time from contact with the hantavirus until the onset of symptoms is thought to be
    A) less than one week.
    B) one to eight weeks.
    C) two months.
    D) one year.

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    29 . In humans, lymphocytic choriomeningitis (LCM) is characterized by
    A) insidious onset.
    B) a flu-like illness lasting only a few days.
    C) rapid onset and very often fatal prognosis.
    D) severe and incapacitating fever and diarrhea.

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    30 . A firm diagnosis of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) can only be made by
    A) prion culture.
    B) brain biopsy or autopsy.
    C) a rise in specific antibody titers.
    D) extensive physical examination.

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    31 . The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii is the
    A) cat.
    B) emu.
    C) elephant.
    D) water buffalo.

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    32 . The diagnosis of toxoplasmosis is usually made by
    A) cell culture.
    B) physical examination.
    C) brain biopsy of the patient.
    D) indirect immunofluorescent antibody tests

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    33 . Treatment of toxoplasmosis in people with normal immune systems
    A) is rarely necessary.
    B) is limited to supportive measures.
    C) should begin as soon as possible after diagnosis.
    D) None of the above

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    34 . The cysts of Giardia, found in many water supplies, can be inactivated or removed by
    A) chlorine.
    B) ultraviolet light.
    C) a filter less than 1 micron.
    D) Both A and C

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    35 . Of the three types of anthrax, which has the highest fatality rate if untreated?
    A) Glandular
    B) Inhalation
    C) Cutaneous
    D) Gastrointestinal

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    36 . Cholera is rarely spread from person to person without
    A) an insect vector.
    B) germinating in an unexposed area.
    C) heat and ultraviolet light to stimulate the organism.
    D) the contamination of food or water by animals or people.

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    37 . There are good antitoxins available for botulism. These antitoxins
    A) prevent future cosmetic applications.
    B) reverse the existing clinical presentation.
    C) are only available for military personnel.
    D) only halt the progression of future symptoms.

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    38 . The symptoms of salmonellosis usually appear
    A) within 6 hours after ingestion of the infective organism.
    B) within 12 to 72 hours after ingestion of the infective organism.
    C) one week from the time of the ingestion of the infective organism.
    D) several weeks from the time of the ingestion of the infective organism.

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    39 . There are several possible hosts for Trichinella species. In the host, the larvae encyst in the
    A) skin.
    B) liver.
    C) intestinal wall.
    D) skeletal muscle.

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    40 . Salting, in high concentration, and smoking appear to provide what prevention against anisakiasis (fish tapeworm infestation)?
    A) No protection at all
    B) More protection than "blast freezing."
    C) Complete eradication of the organism
    D) Some prevention, but not enough to assure a completely safe product

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