Clinical Management of Atrial Fibrillation

Course #90825 - $60-


Self-Assessment Questions

    1 . In the normal heart, the speed of conduction is slowed in the
    A) bundle of His.
    B) sinoatrial node.
    C) Purkinje system.
    D) atrioventricular node.

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    2 . A prolonged QT interval indicates
    A) loss of atrial contraction.
    B) prolonged ventricular repolarization.
    C) shortened atrial and ventricular refractory periods.
    D) accelerated, abnormally rapid depolarization of the ventricles.

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    3 . Of the following, which is a key defining characteristic of atrial fibrillation?
    A) A prolonged QRS interval
    B) A ventricular rate in excess of 300 bpm
    C) Presence of clearly defined, regular sinus P waves
    D) An irregularly irregular ventricular response when conduction through the AV node is normal

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    4 . A key characteristic that can differentiate AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from atrial fibrillation is
    A) the rhythm in AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is regular.
    B) sinus P waves are absent in AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia.
    C) the rate in AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia rarely exceeds 120 bpm.
    D) the QT interval in AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is always lengthened.

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    5 . Cardiac problems linked to the development of atrial fibrillation include which of the following?
    A) Hypertension
    B) Mitral valve disease
    C) Rheumatic heart disease
    D) All of the above

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    6 . One noncardiac cause linked to the development of atrial fibrillation is
    A) diabetes.
    B) psoriasis.
    C) rapid weight gain or loss.
    D) normal renal and hepatic function.

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    7 . A physical assessment finding commonly associated with atrial fibrillation is
    A) slowed heart rate.
    B) diastolic hypertension.
    C) variable pulse pressure.
    D) regular jugular venous pulsations.

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    8 . The initial goal for a patient with atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response is
    A) rate control.
    B) reduction of elevated blood pressure.
    C) improvement of pulmonary hypertension.
    D) increased conduction across the AV node.

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    9 . To receive FDA approval, a generic medication must meet all of the following criteria, EXCEPT:
    A) The generic drug must contain the same amount of active drug ingredient as the proprietary version.
    B) The generic drug must be released at the same rate and to the same extent as the proprietary version.
    C) The generic drug must be manufactured according to federal standards defined in the Good Manufacturing Practices.
    D) The generic and proprietary drugs must have identical inactive ingredients, including fillers, binders, and preservatives.

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    10 . Which of the following is a recommendation with regard to the use of generic medications for antiarrhythmic therapy?
    A) Always switch to generic drugs for life-threatening arrhythmias and other arrhythmias that cause loss of consciousness.
    B) Limit use of generic drugs to time-release preparations of common antiarrhythmic medications only.
    C) When selecting a generic medication, give preference to one that has only one preparation available and is readily available from pharmacies.
    D) Never use generic medications for less serious arrhythmias even if a reliable assay is available and stable therapeutic drug levels can be obtained.

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    11 . For persons in atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response, the usual IV bolus dose of diltiazem is
    A) 0.25 mg/kg.
    B) 375 mcg/kg.
    C) 1 mg/kg.
    D) 3 mg/kg.

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    12 . Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of esmolol in atrial fibrillation?
    A) Esmolol has a very short half-life.
    B) Esmolol stimulates an increase in SA node firing.
    C) Esmolol comes in both intravenous and oral preparations.
    D) The initial loading dose of esmolol is 0.05 mg/kg over one minute.

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    13 . A drug of choice for chronic rate control for persons in atrial fibrillation who also have an active lifestyle is
    A) esmolol.
    B) warfarin.
    C) diltiazem.
    D) adenosine.

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    14 . Severe digitalis toxicity may be reversed by the use of
    A) flecainide.
    B) amiodarone.
    C) digoxin immune Fab.
    D) oral magnesium salts.

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    15 . Of the following, which statement most accurately describes the action of ibutilide?
    A) Ibutilide slightly increases the sinus rate.
    B) Ibutilide accelerates the duration of the action potential.
    C) Ibutilide prolongs the duration of the ventricular refractory period.
    D) Ibutilide blocks movement of calcium ions through all calcium channels.

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    16 . The treatment of choice for torsades de pointes is
    A) IV atropine.
    B) IV lidocaine.
    C) IV dopamine.
    D) IV magnesium sulfate.

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    17 . What is the desired rate of ibutilide administration via volumetric pump?
    A) 0.25 mg over 5 minutes
    B) 1 mg over 10 minutes
    C) 20 mg over 10 minutes
    D) 2.5 mg over 1 minute

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    18 . One toxic effect associated with amiodarone administration is
    A) pericarditis.
    B) endocarditis.
    C) pulmonary fibrosis.
    D) elevated hemoglobin.

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    19 . Electrical cardioversion is the treatment of choice for persons with
    A) loss of accessory pathway conduction.
    B) stable atrial fibrillation at a controlled rate.
    C) hemodynamically unstable atrial fibrillation.
    D) presence of atrial thrombus documented by TEE.

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    20 . Prior to electrical cardioversion, a patient should be adequately anticoagulated with an INR maintained between 2.0–3.0 for
    A) 48 hours.
    B) 3 weeks.
    C) 1 month.
    D) 3 months.

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    21 . Because it can cause torsades de pointes, sotalol is NOT recommended to be administered in doses in excess of
    A) 320 mg/day.
    B) 380 mg/day.
    C) 420 mg/day.
    D) 560 mg/day.

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    22 . The drug of choice for treatment of atrial fibrillation that has no identifiable cause is
    A) quinidine.
    B) flecainide.
    C) amiodarone.
    D) propafenone.

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    23 . For a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0, the recommended antithrombotic approach is
    A) no antithrombotic therapy.
    B) warfarin 1–5 mg daily.
    C) aspirin 81–325 mg daily.
    D) clopidogrel 300 mg weekly.

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    24 . Which of the following is an indication for radiofrequency ablation of the AV node?
    A) Failed electrical or pharmacologic cardioversion
    B) Asymptomatic atrial fibrillation at a controlled rate
    C) Adequate rate control with oral antiarrhythmic medications
    D) Absence of side effects or proarrhythmic effects with oral antiarrhythmic therapy

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    25 . Which of the following interventions represents appropriate care following electrophysiology testing?
    A) Administer IV heparin by continuous infusion for 24 hours.
    B) Maintain the patient in Trendelenburg position until ablation sheaths are removed.
    C) Keep the patient NPO for 24 hours or until bowel sounds return following the procedure.
    D) Assess sites used for insertion of the electrophysiology catheters for bleeding or hematoma formation.

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    26 . The recommended postoperative therapy to prevent atrial fibrillation in patients who have undergone coronary artery bypass graft surgery is administration of
    A) beta blockers.
    B) synchronized cardioversion.
    C) intravenous magnesium sulfate.
    D) intermittent IV boluses of diltiazem.

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    27 . ECG characteristics associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome include
    A) normal ST segment.
    B) prolonged PR interval.
    C) regular rate and rhythm.
    D) presence of a delta wave.

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    28 . The initial drug of choice for the management of atrial fibrillation in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is
    A) digoxin.
    B) warfarin.
    C) verapamil.
    D) procainamide.

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    29 . In the case study of acute-onset atrial fibrillation, Patient D's risk factors for the development of atrial fibrillation include
    A) palpitations.
    B) hypertension.
    C) alcoholic cirrhosis.
    D) gastroesophageal reflux.

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    30 . A QTc interval of 580 msec is
    A) within normal limits.
    B) dangerously shortened.
    C) significantly prolonged.
    D) acceptable for patients on antiarrhythmic therapy.

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