Pathophysiology: The Hematologic System

Course #38990 - $90-


Self-Assessment Questions

    1 . Which symptom commonly accompanies Hodgkin and non Hodgkin lymphoma?
    A) Heliotrope rash
    B) Pruritus of unclear cause
    C) Telangiectasias
    D) Livedo reticularis

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    2 . Which chronic skin issue is frequently seen in adults with sickle cell disease?
    A) Psoriasiform plaques
    B) Malar rash
    C) Erythema nodosum
    D) Leg ulcers over the medial and lateral malleoli

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    3 . Which of the following medication use history items indicates a potential for increased bleeding risk as a result of impairing platelet function?
    A) Aspirin use
    B) Acetaminophen use
    C) Omeprazole use
    D) Loratadine use

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    4 . Which environmental exposure raises risk for hematologic injury?
    A) Sunscreen chemicals
    B) Fluoridated water
    C) Silicone cookware
    D) Industrial dyes and dry cleaning fluid

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    5 . Which past surgery has major implications for hematologic risk and infection?
    A) Splenectomy
    B) Hemiarthroplasty
    C) Cataract removal
    D) Inguinal hernia repair

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    6 . Which past surgery most strongly predisposes to pernicious anemia?
    A) Cholecystectomy
    B) Appendectomy
    C) Resection of the stomach and duodenum
    D) Hysterectomy

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    7 . In patients with darkly pigmented skin, which site is recommended to assess tissue oxygenation?
    A) Posterior forearm skin
    B) Cheek coloration
    C) Palmar creases
    D) Dorsal foot veins

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    8 . Petechiae usually present as
    A) Vesicular lesions that crust within 24 to 48 hours
    B) Warm, indurated plaques with surrounding pallor
    C) Tender, raised red papules that blanch with pressure
    D) Flat, nontender lesions that do not blanch with pressure

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    9 . Which skin finding most often correlates with platelet function/number disorders?
    A) Hemarthrosis after minor trauma
    B) Deep muscle hematomas
    C) Petechiae over pressure areas after a tourniquet or cuff is used
    D) Chronic epistaxis without cutaneous signs

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    10 . Which ocular or mucosal sign supports anemia during exam?
    A) Conjunctival pallor
    B) Blue sclerae
    C) Kayser–Fleischer rings
    D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage only

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    11 . What is the primary value of the CBC with differential?
    A) Measuring renal function
    B) Screening for endocrine disorders
    C) Assessing oxygen transport and resistance to infection
    D) Directly measuring clotting factors

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    12 . The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is typically elevated in which of the following conditions?
    A) Simple iron deficiency alone
    B) Polycythemia vera and sickle cell disease
    C) Leukemia, malignant lymphoma, and Hodgkin disease
    D) Uncomplicated dehydration and shock

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    13 . Which of the following statements about the reticulocyte count is accurate?
    A) It measures platelet function.
    B) It detects vitamin B12 status only.
    C) It is rarely useful in anemia evaluation.
    D) It is the most useful test in the evaluation of anemia.

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    14 . Which coagulation screening is used in von Willebrand disease diagnosis?
    A) PT alone
    B) Bleeding time (IVY method preferred) among other assays
    C) D dimer only
    D) ESR and CRP only

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    15 . Which coagulation test is used to regulate warfarin therapy?
    A) Bleeding time
    B) Fibrinogen level alone
    C) Prothrombin time (PT)
    D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

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    16 . Which coagulation test can be used to regulate heparin therapy?
    A) PT only
    B) Bleeding time
    C) Platelet count
    D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

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    17 . Which lab confirms classic hemophilia (hemophilia A)?
    A) Factor IX activity
    B) Factor VIII AAHF activity
    C) Platelet function assay alone
    D) von Willebrand factor antigen only

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    18 . Immunoglobulin studies may need to be delayed in which circumstance?
    A) Recent high iron diet
    B) Use of beta blockers
    C) Normal ferritin levels
    D) Immunizations within the previous six months

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    19 . Which lab pattern supports iron deficiency anemia per the Diagnostic Studies section?
    A) High ferritin and low TIBC
    B) Normal ferritin with low TIBC
    C) High LDH and low bilirubin only
    D) Decreased serum ferritin and elevated TIBC

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    20 . Which positioning/oxygen measure best supports gas exchange in anemia?
    A) Trendelenburg position
    B) Elevate head of bed; administer oxygen therapy as needed
    C) Strict bedrest supine only
    D) Hyperventilation coaching

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    21 . Which oral care guidance is correct for thrombocytopenic/neutropenic patients?
    A) Use toothpicks and floss daily.
    B) Brush firmly to prevent plaque.
    C) Alcohol mouthwash hourly.
    D) Use soft bristled toothbrush or cotton swabs; soothing nonalcoholic mouthwashes every two to four hours.

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    22 . Which ANC threshold denotes the highest infection risk that requires precautions?
    A) 2,500 cells/mcL
    B) 1,200 cells/mcL
    C) 800 cells/mcL
    D) Less than 500 cells/mcL

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    23 . Which ABO group has both anti A and anti B antibodies?
    A) Group A
    B) Group B
    C) Group AB
    D) Group O

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    24 . What key Rh consideration applies to girls and women of childbearing potential?
    A) Avoid giving Rh– RBCs to Rh+ recipients
    B) Avoid transfusing Rh+ RBCs into Rh– girls and women during pregnancy or childbirth
    C) Rh status is irrelevant to future pregnancies
    D) Rh+ units can be given to all recipients safely

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    25 . Which crossmatch is the most important for safe transfusion?
    A) Minor crossmatch
    B) Major crossmatch (recipient plasma with donor RBCs)
    C) Type and screen only replaces crossmatch
    D) Visual inspection for clots only

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    26 . Which components are standard in modern transfusion therapy?
    A) Whole blood is routine
    B) Granulocytes never used
    C) Only plasma is transfused
    D) Component therapy (RBCs, plasma, platelets, cryoprecipitate), with WBCs removed

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    27 . Platelet transfusions are used to
    A) correct low hemoglobin specifically.
    B) prevent/treat bleeding due to thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction.
    C) reverse elevated PT only.
    D) treat iron deficiency.

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    28 . Which is an appropriate indication for cryoprecipitate?
    A) DIC with hemorrhage when fibrinogen <1 g/L
    B) Mild PT elevation without bleeding
    C) Platelet count 120,000/mcL
    D) Prophylaxis before vaccinations

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    29 . Which fluid and tubing practice is correct for blood administration?
    A) Use non filtered primary tubing
    B) Prime with D5W through any IV tubing
    C) Prime Y set with 0.9% normal saline and do not co administer medications in the same line
    D) Prime with LR and piggyback antibiotics

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    30 . Transfusions must be completed within what time from release by the blood bank?
    A) Two hours
    B) Three hours
    C) Four hours
    D) Six hours

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    31 . What is the required bedside verification before starting a transfusion?
    A) Single nurse visual check
    B) Patient verbally states blood type
    C) Two qualified nurses verify patient ID, blood unit, and compatibility
    D) Physician signature replaces nurse verification

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    32 . What is the correct initial infusion rate for blood in the first 15 minutes?
    A) 25–50 mL/min
    B) 1–2 mL/min (10–20 gtt/min) with the nurse remaining with the patient
    C) Run wide open if vitals are stable
    D) 5–10 mL/min without monitoring

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    33 . What is the correct initial bedside action for suspected transfusion reaction?
    A) Increase the infusion rate
    B) Give acetaminophen and continue
    C) Call the lab before changing anything
    D) Stop the infusion and switch to 0.9% NS with new primed tubing

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    34 . In patients with sickle cell disease experiencing pain crises, what body areas are most commonly affected?
    A) Lower back
    B) Knee/shin area
    C) Hips
    D) All of the above

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    35 . Which sickle cell therapy is disease modifying and reduces painful crises?
    A) Daily aspirin
    B) Hydroxyurea, which induces fetal hemoglobin and reduces pain crises and transfusions
    C) Routine phlebotomy
    D) Long term corticosteroids alone

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    36 . Which trigger management pair aligns with G 6 PD deficiency guidance?
    A) With a trigger of lactose, manage with epinephrine.
    B) With the trigger fava beans/certain drugs, manage with trigger avoidance and transfuse packed RBCs, if severe.
    C) With a trigger of gluten, manage with steroid therapy.
    D) With a trigger of aspirin, manage with splenectomy only.

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    37 . Which laboratory profile is typical in hemophilia?
    A) Prolonged PT, low platelets
    B) Normal PT and platelet count with prolonged PTT
    C) Elevated fibrinogen, prolonged bleeding time only
    D) Low factor VII with prolonged PT only

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    38 . For hemophilia with acute hemarthrosis, which intervention is supported?
    A) Aspirin for analgesia
    B) Early aggressive ROM
    C) Splinting or casting the involved joint; administer deficient factor
    D) Heat and deep massage

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    39 . Which patient education point is essential for pernicious anemia?
    A) A short course of B12 is sufficient.
    B) Lifelong vitamin B12 therapy is required; noncompliance risks neurologic damage.
    C) Iron alone reverses anemia.
    D) Therapy can stop once hemoglobin normalizes.

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    40 . All of the following are among the most common types of leukemias, EXCEPT:
    A) Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
    B) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
    C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
    D) Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGL)

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